MET
1. What cloud type does the picture show? (RDDC: 9)
See figure (MET-003).
- a. Nimbostratus
- b. Altocumulus
- c. Cumulus
- d. Cirrus
2. Measured pressure distribution in MSL and corresponding frontal systems are displayed by the… (RDDC: 4)
- a. Significant Weather Chart (SWC).
- b. Hypsometric chart.
- c. Prognostic chart.
- d. Surface weather chart.
3. Hot air over the tropics creates a band of low pressure at the surface known as…. (RDDC: 3)
- a. the equitorial trough
- b. a mid-latitude cell
- c. the equitorial high
- d. a polar cell
4. What type of fog emerges if water evaporates from a warm and humid surface into cold air and condensates again shortly thereafter? (RDDC: 3)
- a. Steaming fog
- b. Radiation fog
- c. Hill fog
- d. Advection fog
5. Heavy downdrafts and strong wind shear close to the ground can be expected… (RDDC: 3)
- a. during warm summer days with high, flatted Cu clouds.
- b. during cold, clear nights with the formation of radiation fog.
- c. near the rainfall areas of heavy showers or thunderstorms.
- d. during approach to an airfield at the coast with a strong sea breeze.
6. Air descending behind a mountain range is defined as… (RDDC: 3)
- a. divergent wind.
- b. convergent wind.
- c. anabatic wind.
- d. katabatic wind.
7. The pressure which is measured at a ground station and reduced to mean sea level (MSL) by means of the standard conditions (ISA) is called… (RDDC: 3)
- a. QNH.
- b. QFE.
- c. QNE.
- d. QFF.
8. Moderate to severe turbulence has to be expected… (RDDC: 3)
- a. below thick cloud layers on the windward side of a mountain range.
- b. overhead unbroken cloud layers.
- c. with the appearance of extended low stratus clouds (high fog).
- d. on the lee side of a mountain range when rotor clouds are present.
9. What process causes latent heat being released into the upper troposphere? (RDDC: 3)
- a. Descending air across widespread areas
- b. Stabilisation of inflowing air masses
- c. Evaporation over widespread water areas
- d. Cloud forming due to condensation
10. The character of an air mass is given by what properties? (RDDC: 3)
- a. Temperatures at origin and present region
- b. Region of origin and track during movement
- c. Environmental lapse rate at origin
- d. Wind speed and tropopause height
11. With other factors remaining constant, decreasing temperature results in… (RDDC: 3)
- decreasing spread and increasing relative humidity.
- increasing spread and decreasing relative humidity.
- increasing spread and increasing relative humidity.
- decreasing spread and decreasing relative humidity.
12. What is the ISA standard pressure at FL 180 (5500 m)? (RDDC: 2)
- a. 300 hPa
- b. 1013.25 hPa
- c. 500 hPa
- d. 250 hPa
13. The temperature lapse rate with increasing height within the troposphere according ISA is… (RDDC: 2)
- a. 0.6° C / 100 m.
- b. 3° C / 100 m.
- c. 1° C / 100 m.
- d. 0.65° C / 100 m.
14. What weather phenomenon designated by “2” has to be expected on the lee side during the illustrated conditions? (RDDC: 2)
See figure (MET-001)
![Diagram showing airflow over mountain with numbered regions]
- a. Cumulonimbus
- b. Altocumulus Castellanus
- c. Nimbostratus
- d. Altocumulus lenticularis
- a. VOLMET.
- b. SIGMET.
- c. PIREP.
- d. ATIS.
16. The color sequence used in weather radar images to indicate precipitation intensity from low to high is typically: (RDDC: 2)
- a. Green - yellow - blue - red
- b. Blue - green - orange - yellow
- c. Green - yellow - orange - red
- d. Red - orange - yellow - green
QNH: 983 hPa
Altitude: FL 85
Outside Air Temperature: ISA - 10°
- a. 7600 ft
- b. 7300 ft
- c. 9400 ft
- d. 7900 ft
18. What weather phenomena have to be expected around an upper-level trough? (RDDC: 2)
- a. Calm weather, formation of lifted fog layers
- b. Development of showers and thunderstorms (Cb)
- c. Calm wind, forming of shallow cumulus clouds
- d. Formation of high stratus clouds, ground-covering cloud bases
- a. Surface weather chart
- b. Significant Weather Chart (SWC)
- c. Wind chart
- d. Hypsometric chart
20. What is referred to as mountain wind? (RDDC: 2)
- a. Wind blowing uphill from the valley during daytime.
- b. Wind blowing down the mountain side during daytime.
- c. Wind blowing uphill from the valley during the night.
- d. Wind blowing down the mountain side during the night
21. A band of low pressure is usually present: (RDDC: 2)
- a. At the north/south pole
- b. Along the equator
- c. At mid-latitudes around 50-70°N/S
- d. Over oceanic areas at latitues around 30°N/S
22. What pressure pattern can be observed during the passage of a polar front low? (RDDC: 2)
- a. Rising pressure in front of the warm front, rising pressure within the warm sector, falling pressure behind the cold front
- b. Falling pressure in front of the warm front, constant pressure within the warm sector, rising pressure behind the cold front
- c. Falling pressure in front of the warm front, constant pressure within the warm sector, falling pressure behind the cold front
- d. Rising pressure in front of the warm front, constant pressure within the warm sector, rising pressure behind the cold front
- a. actual location and intensity of precipitation.
- b. visual and infra-red satellite images.
- c. precise weather forecast up to 28 days.
- d. upper wind and temperature, humidity.
24. What factor may affect the top of cumulus clouds? (RDDC: 2)
- a. The spread
- b. The absolute humidity
- c. Relative humidity
- d. The presence of an inversion layer
- a. Moderate to strong updrafts
- b. High humidity and high temperatures
- c. The presence of an inversion layer
- d. Calm winds and intensive sunlight insolation
26. Clouds in high layers are referred to as… (RDDC: 2)
- a. Strato-.
- b. Cirro-.
- c. Alto-.
- d. Nimbo-.
27. What wind conditions can be expected in areas showing large distances between isobars? (RDDC: 2)
- a. Strong prevailing westerly winds with rapid veering
- b. Variable winds, formation of local wind systems
- c. Strong prevailing easterly winds with rapid backing
- d. Formation of local wind systems with strong prevailing westerly winds
28. What frontal line divides subtropical air from polar cold air, in particular across Central Europe? (RDDC: 2)
- a. Polar front
- b. Cold front
- c. Occlusion
- d. Warm front
29. When air masses meet each other head on, how is this referred to and what air movements will follow? (RDDC: 2)
- a. Convergence resulting in sinking air
- b. Divergence resulting in sinking air
- c. Divergence resulting in air being lifted
- d. Convergence resulting in air being lifted
30. What danger is most imminent during an approach to an airfield situated in a valley, with strong wind aloft blowing perpendicular to the mountain ridge? (RDDC: 2)
- a. Wind shear during descent, wind direction may change by 180°
- b. Formation of medium to heavy clear ice on all aircraft surfaces
- c. Reduced visibilty, maybe loss of sight to the airfield during final approach
- d. Heavy downdrafts within rainfall areas below thunderstorm clouds
31. With regard to thunderstorms, strong up- and downdrafts appear during the… (RDDC: 2)
- a. thunderstorm stage.
- b. initial stage.
- c. dissipating stage.
- d. mature stage.
- a. Calm winds and cold air, overcast cloud cover with St or As.
- b. Warm and dry air, strong inversion layer
- c. Clear night over land, cold air and patches of fog
- d. Warm humid air, conditionally unstable environmental lapse rate
33. What phenomenon is referred to as “blue thermals”? (RDDC: 2)
- a. Thermals without formation of Cu clouds
- b. Turbulence in the vicinity of Cumulonimbus clouds
- c. Thermals with less than 4/8 Cu coverage
- d. Descending air between Cumulus clouds
34. The formation of medium to large precipitation particles requires… (RDDC: 2)
- a. an inversion layer.
- b. strong wind.
- c. strong updrafts.
- d. a high cloud base.
35. Satellite images in the infra-red (IR) spectrum can be used to… (RDDC: 2)
- a. identify temperatures and thereby top level of clouds.
- b. identify temperatures and thereby cloud base coverage.
- c. identify clear air turbulence areas and forecast.
- d. identify precipitation areas and forecast.
36. What cloud type can typically be observed across widespread high pressure areas during summer? (RDDC: 2)
- a. Overcast Ns clouds
- b. Overcast low stratus
- c. Squall lines and thunderstorms
- d. Scattered Cu clouds
37. What visual flight conditions can be expected near a cold front? (RDDC: 2)
- a. Moderate to good visibility, clear of clouds
- b. Good visibility, some isolated high clouds
- c. Moderate visibility, heavy showers, turbulence and thunderstorms
- d. Visibility less than 1000 m, cloud-covered ground and continuous precipitation
38. The saturated adiabatic lapse rate should be assumed with a mean value of: (RDDC: 2)
- a. 2° C / 1000 ft.
- b. 0° C / 100 m.
- c. 0.6° C / 100 m.
- d. 1.0° C / 100 m.
- a. Location of pressure areas and displacement of fronts
- b. Forecast weather at destination with cloud base and visibility
- c. Current weather at departure airport
- d. Forecast weather at destination and runway in use
40. How can wind speed and wind direction be derived from surface weather charts? (RDDC: 2)
- a. By alignment and distance of hypsometric lines
- b. By alignment of lines of warm- and cold fronts.
- c. By alignment and distance of isobaric lines
- d. By annotations from the text part of the chart
41. Extensive high pressure areas can be found throughout the year … (RDDC: 2)
- in areas showing extensive lifting processes.
- in tropical areas, close to the equator.
- in mid latitudes along the polar front
- over oceanic areas at latitudes around 30°N/S.
42. What weather conditions can be expected during “Foehn” on the windward side of a mountain range? (RDDC: 2)
- Dissipating clouds with unusual warming, accompanied by strong, gusty winds
- Layered clouds, mountains obscured, poor visibility, moderate or heavy rain
- Calm wind and forming of high stratus clouds (high fog)
- Scattered cumulus clouds with showers and thunderstorms
43. What type of cloud indicates thermal updrafts? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Cumulus
- b. Lenticularis
- c. Cirrus
- d. Stratus
- a. The height at which the relative humidity of the rising air reaches 0 %
- b. The height at which the temperature of the rising air reaches its dew point
- c. The height at which the rising air reaches the top of an inversion layer
- d. The height at which the temperature of the rising air reaches the environmental dew point
45. The gas mixture “air” is composed of what components? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Oxygen 21 %, water vapour 78 %, noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 %
- b. Oxygen 78 %, water vapour 21 %, Nitrogen 1 %
- c. Oxygen 21 %, Nitrogen 78 %, noble gases / Carbon Dioxide 1 %
- d. Nitrogen 21 %, Oxygen 78 %, noble gases / Carbon Dioxide 1 %
46. What is the gas composition of “air”? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Oxygen 21 %, Water vapour 78 %, Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 %
- b. Nitrogen 21 %, Oxygen 78 %, Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 %
- c. Oxygen 21 %, Nitrogen 78 %, Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 %
- d. Oxygen 78 %, Water vapour 21 %, Nitrogen 1 %
47. Which process may result in an inversion layer at about 5000 ft (1500 m) height? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Ground cooling by radiation during the night
- b. Intensive sunlight insolation during a warm summer day
- c. Widespread descending air within a high pressure area
- d. Advection of cool air in the upper troposphere
48. What are the air masses that Central Europe is mainly influenced by? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Arctic and polar cold air
- b. Tropical and arctic cold air
- c. Polar cold air and tropical warm air
- d. Equatorial and tropical warm air
49. Clouds are basically distinguished by what types? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Thunderstorm and shower clouds
- b. Cumulus and stratiform clouds
- c. Stratiform and ice clouds
- d. Layered and lifted clouds
- a. Strong winds, decreasing temperature
- b. Low spread, decreasing temperature
- c. Low pressure, increasing temperature
- d. Low spread, increasing temperature
51. What is meant by “isothermal layer”? (RDDC: 1)
- a. A boundary area between two other layers within the atmosphere
- b. An atmospheric layer with constant temperature with increasing height
- c. An atmospheric layer where temperature increases with increasing height
- d. An atmospheric layer where temperature decreases with increasing height
52. Which of the following conditions are most favourable for ice accretion? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Temperatures below 0° C, strong wind, sky clear of clouds
- b. Temperatures between +10° C and -30° C, presence of hail (clouds)
- c. Temperatures between 0° C and -12° C, presence of supercooled water droplets (clouds)
- d. Temperatures between -20° C and -40° C, presence of ice crystals (Ci clouds)
53. What clouds and weather may result from an humid and instable air mass, that is pushed against a chain of mountains by the predominant wind and forced to rise? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Thin Altostratus and Cirrostratus clouds with light and steady precipitation.
- b. Embedded CB with thunderstorms and showers of hail and/or rain.
- c. Smooth, unstructured NS cloud with light drizzle or snow (during winter).
- d. Overcast low stratus (high fog) with no precipitation.
- a. Information about icing conditions
- b. Front lines and frontal displacements
- c. Radar echos of precipitation
- d. Information about turbulence areas
55. How does inflowing cold air affect the shape and vertical distance between pressure layers? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Increasing vertical distance, raise in height (high pressure)
- b. Decrease in vertical distance, lowering in height (low pressure)
- c. Decreasing vertical distance, raise in height (high pressure)
- d. Increase in vertical distance, lowering in height (low pressure)
- a. Low spread
- b. Calm wind
- c. Overcast cloud cover
- d. Clear night, no clouds
57. Prediction from numerical weather forecast models can be used to… (RDDC: 1)
- a. Check actual cloud and visibility situation at destination airport.
- b. Improve the quality of HRV and RGB satellite images.
- c. Visualize flight hazards along the planned route.
- d. A precise prediction of cloud and visibility situation at an airport up to 14 days.
58. What level of turbulence has always to be expected, regardless of mentioning in weather forecasts? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Heavy turbulence below cumulus clouds
- b. Moderate and severe turbulence
- c. Moderate clear air turbulence (CAT)
- d. Light turbulence (“thermal turbulence”)
59. The symbol labeled (3) as shown in the picture is a / an… (RDDC: 1)
See figure (MET-005)
![Weather diagram showing cold front, warm front, and occlusion symbols]
- a. front aloft.
- b. occlusion.
- c. cold front.
- d. warm front.
60. What is the mass of a “cube of air” with the edges 1 m long, at MSL according ISA? (RDDC: 1)
- a. 1.225 kg
- b. 12.25 kg
- c. 0.01225 kg
- d. 0.1225 kg
61. What clouds and weather can typically be observed during the passage of a cold front? (RDDC: 1)
- a. In coastal areas during daytime wind from the coast and forming of cumulus clouds, dissipation of clouds during evening and night
- b. Strongly developed cumulus clouds (Cb) with showers of rain and thunderstorms, gusting wind followed by cumulus clouds with isolated showers of rain
- c. Cirrus, thickening altostratus and altocumulus clouds, lowering cloud base with rain, nimbostratus
- d. Wind becoming calm, dissipation of clouds and warming during summer; formation of extended high fog layers during winter
62. As taken from ground-based weather radar images with “orange” or “red” areas, what type of precipitation can be expected? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Fog or freezing fog
- b. Showers of rain, hail or soft hail (graupel)
- c. Steady light rain
- d. Drizzle or ice crystals
63. Light turbulence always has to be expected…. (RDDC: 1)
- a. below cumulus clouds due to thermal convection.
- b. below stratiform clouds in medium layers.
- c. above cumulus clouds due to thermal convection.
- d. when entering inversions.
- a. Absolutely stable atmosphere, high temperature and high humidity
- b. Conditionally unstable atmosphere, low temperature and low humidity
- c. Absolutely stable atmosphere, high temperature and low humidity
- d. Conditionally unstable atmosphere, high temperature and high humidity
65. Winds blowing uphill are defined as… (RDDC: 1)
- a. katabatic winds.
- b. subsident winds.
- c. anabatic winds.
- d. convergent winds.
- a. Stratus (St)
- b. Cirrus (Ci)
- c. Cumulonimbus (Cb)
- d. Cumulus (Cu)
67. What temperatures are most dangerous with respect to airframe icing? (RDDC: 1)
- a. -20° to -40° C
- b. 0° to -12° C
- c. +20° to -5° C
- d. +5° to -10° C
68. The “spread” is defined as… (RDDC: 1)
- a. relation of actual to maximum possible humidity of air.
- b. difference between actual temperature and dew point.
- c. maximum amount of water vapour that can be contained in air.
- d. difference between dew point and condensation point.
69. What wind is reported as 225/15? (RDDC: 1)
- a. south-west wind with 15 km/h
- b. north-east wind with 15 kt
- c. north-east wind with 15 km/h
- d. south-west wind with 15 kt
70. What change of wind direction can be expected during the passage of a polar front low in Central Europe? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Backing wind during passage of the warm front, veering wind during passage of the cold front
- b. Veering wind during passage of the warm front, backing wind during passage of the cold front
- c. Veering wind during passage of the warm front, veering wind during passage of the cold front
- d. Backing wind during passage of the warm front, backing wind during passage of the cold front
71. How does air temperature change in ISA from MSL to approx. 10,000 m height? (RDDC: 1)
- a. from -15° to 50°C
- b. from +20° to -40°C
- c. from +15° to -50°C
- d. from +30° to -40°C
72. Ground-based weather radar allows to display… (RDDC: 1)
- a. forecast of location and intensity of clouds and precipitation.
- b. vertical distribution of clouds with base and top levels.
- c. temperature distribution at different altitudes.
- d. the current location and intensity of precipitation areas.
73. Which of the stated surfaces will reduce the wind speed most due to ground friction? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Flat land, deserted land, no vegetation
- b. Mountainous areas, vegetation cover
- c. Flat land, lots of vegetation cover
- d. Oceanic areas
74. With regard to global circulation within the atmosphere, where does polar cold air meets subtropical warm air? (RDDC: 1)
- a. At the equator
- b. At the subtropical high pressure belt
- c. At the polar front
- d. At the geographic poles
75. The pressure at MSL in ISA conditions is… (RDDC: 1)
- a. 1123 hPa.
- b. 1013.25 hPa.
- c. 15 hPa.
- d. 113.25 hPa.
- a. The spread increases significantly
- b. The relative humidity reduces to 0 %
- c. Air cools below its dew point
- d. Formation of overcast cloud cover in medium height during the night
77. What weather conditions may be expected in the area of an occlusion? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Scattered clouds with isolated showers and thunderstorms
- b. St or Ns with high vertical extension, embedded showers and thunderstorms
- c. Dissipating clouds by widerspread descending air
- d. Medium cloud layers and Ci, no precipitation
78. What chart shows areas of precipitation? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Wind chart
- b. Radar picture
- c. Satellite picture
- d. GAFOR
79. The term “tropopause” is defined as… (RDDC: 1)
- a. the boundary area between the mesosphere and the stratosphere.
- b. the boundary area between the troposphere and the stratosphere.
- c. the layer above the troposphere showing an increasing temperature.
- d. the height above which the temperature starts to decrease.
80. What weather development will result from convergence at ground level? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Ascending air and cloud dissipation
- b. Ascending air and cloud formation
- c. Descending air and cloud formation
- d. Descending air and cloud dissipation
81. Which type of cloud is associated with prolonged rain? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Cirrostratus
- b. Altocumulus
- c. Nimbostratus
- d. Cumulonimbus
82. The RGB (Red-Green-Blue) satellite images show… (RDDC: 1)
- a. top level of clouds by temperature measurement.
- b. location and intensity of precipitation areas.
- c. cloud areas by combining images of different visual channels.
- d. forecast development of pressure patterns.
- a. TS.
- b. SHRA.
- c. +RA.
- d. +TSRA.
84. What weather conditions may be expected during conditionally unstable conditions? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Sky clear of clouds, sunshine, low winds
- b. Towering cumulus, isolated showers of rain or thunderstorms
- c. Shallow cumulus clouds with base at medium levels
- d. Layered clouds up to high levels, prolonged rain or snow
85. What situation is referred to as “shielding”? (RDDC: 1)
- a. High or mid-level cloud layers, impairing thermal activity
- b. Coverage of Cumulus clouds, stated as part of eights of the sky
- c. Ns clouds, covering the windward side of a mountain range
- d. Anvil-like structure at the upper levels of a thunderstorm cloud
- a. Surface weather chart
- b. Wind chart
- c. Significant Weather Chart (SWC)
- d. Hypsometric chart
87. The movement of air flowing apart is called… (RDDC: 1)
- a. convergence.
- b. divergence.
- c. subsidence.
- d. concordence.
88. The cloud types shown by HRV (High Resolution Visual) satellite images as “compact, single white spots” can be intepreted as: (RDDC: 1)
- a. Stratus (St)
- b. Cirrus (Ci)
- c. Convective Clouds (Cu, Cb)
- d. Nimbostratus (Ns)
89. What has to be considered when taking off in a ground inversion? (RDDC: 1)
- a. During climb, a sudden decrease in speed and climb performance has to be expected
- b. Climb should be performed with the lowest possible speed and maximum power
- c. Due to low temperatures close to the ground, icing has to be expected
- d. During the climb, a sudden increase in speed and climb performance has to be expected
90. The barometric altimeter with QNH setting indicates… (RDDC: 1)
- a. true altitude above MSL.
- b. height above the pressure level at airfield elevation.
- c. altitude above MSL.
- d. height above standard pressure 1013.25 hPa.
91. What weather conditions can be expected in high pressure areas during summer? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Calm winds and widespread areas with high fog
- b. Calm weather and cloud dissipation, few high Cu
- c. Squall lines and thunderstorms
- d. Changing weather with passing of frontal lines
92. The saturated adiabatic lapse rate is… (RDDC: 1)
- a. proportional to the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
- b. lower than the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
- c. equal to the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
- d. higher than the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
93. Which weather chart shows the actual air pressure as in MSL along with pressure centers and fronts? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Wind chart
- b. Surface weather chart
- c. Hypsometric chart
- d. Prognostic chart
94. The symbol labeled (2) as shown in the picture is a / an… (RDDC: 1)
See figure (MET-005)
- a. occlusion.
- b. warm front.
- c. front aloft.
- d. cold front.
95. Which unit is used for temperatures given by meteorological aviation services in Europe and Africa? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Degrees Centigrade (° C)
- b. Kelvin
- c. Degrees Fahrenheit
- d. Gpdam
96. What type of fog emerges if humid and almost saturated air, is forced to rise upslope of hills or shallow mountains by the prevailling wind? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Orographic fog
- b. Advection fog
- c. Steaming fog
- d. Radiation fog
97. What can be expected for the prevailling wind with isobars on a surface weather chart showing large distances? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Strong pressure gradients resulting in low prevailling wind
- b. Low pressure gradients resulting in low prevailling wind
- c. Low pressure gradients resulting in strong prevailling wind
- d. Strong pressure gradients resulting in strong prevailling wind
98. “Foehn” conditions usually develop with… (RDDC: 1)
- a. stability, high pressure area with calm wind.
- b. instability, widespread air blown against a mountain ridge.
- c. instability, high pressure area with calm wind.
- d. stability, widespread air blown against a mountain ridge.
99. The movement of air flowing together is called… (RDDC: 1)
- a. subsidence.
- b. convergence.
- c. divergence.
- d. soncordence.
100. Cold air inflow in high tropospheric layers may result in… (RDDC: 1)
- a. frontal weather.
- b. showers and thunderstorms.
- c. stabilisation and calm weather.
- d. calm weather and cloud dissipation.
101. A boundary between a cold polar air mass and a warm subtropical air mass showing no horizontal displacement is called… (RDDC: 1)
- a. warm front.
- b. stationary front.
- c. cold front.
- d. occluded front.
- a. Overview of cloud covers and front lines
- b. Temperature and dew point of environmental air
- c. Flight visibility, ground visibility, and ground contact
- d. Turbulence and icing
103. The height of the tropopause of the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is at… (RDDC: 1)
- a. 48,000 ft.
- b. 5,500 ft.
- c. 36,000 ft.
- d. 11,000 ft.
104. A sequence of satellite images can be used to show… (RDDC: 1)
- a. movement and variation of pressure patterns.
- b. movement and variation of clear air turbulence.
- c. position and movement of fronts and clouds.
- d. position and movement of precipitation areas.
105. The advantage of RGB satellite images over HRV images is that… (RDDC: 1)
- a. by combining visual and IR channels, cloud images look the same day and night.
- b. by combining visual and radar channels, cloud and precipitation types can be identified.
- c. RGB images are calculations by meteorological models to forecast movements of fronts.
- d. by combining different visual channels, cloud types and altitudes can be more easily distinguished.
106. While planning a 500 km triangle flight, there is a squall line 100 km west of the departure airfield, extending from north to south, moving east. Concerning the weather situation, what decision would be recommendable? (RDDC: 1)
- a. To change plans and start the triangle heading east
- b. To plan the flight below cloud base of the thunderstorms
- c. During flight, to look for spacing between thunderstorms
- d. To postpone the flight to another day
107. Ground-based weather radar is used to detect and display: (RDDC: 1)
- a. Precipitation
- b. Clouds
- c. Temperatures
- d. Pressure patterns
108. What kind of reduction in visibility is not very sensitive to changes in temperature? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Patches of fog (BCFG)
- b. Haze (HZ)
- c. Radiation fog (FG)
- d. Mist (BR)
109. What type of turbulence is typically found close to the ground on the lee side during Foehn conditions? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Turbulence in rotors
- b. Inversion turbulence
- c. Thermal turbulence
- d. Clear-air turbulence (CAT)
110. What danger is most imminent when an aircraft is hit by lightning? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Disturbed radio communication, static noise signals
- b. Rapid cabin depressurization and smoke in the cabin
- c. Surface overheat and damage to exposed aircraft parts
- d. Explosion of electrical equipment in the cockpit
111. The symbol labeled (1) as shown in the picture is a / an… (RDDC: 1)
See figure (MET-005).
- a. cold front.
- b. warm front.
- c. front aloft.
- d. occlusion.
112. The barometric altimeter with QFE setting indicates… (RDDC: 1)
- a. height above standard pressure 1013.25 hPa.
- b. true altitude above MSL.
- c. height above the pressure level at airfield elevation.
- d. altitude above MSL.
113. The cloud types shown by HRV (High Resolution Visual) satellite images as “compact, single white spots” can be interpreted as: (RDDC: 1)
- a. Stratus (St)
- b. Convective Clouds (Cu, Cb)
- c. Nimbostratus (Ns)
- d. Cirrus (Ci)
114. The operating principle of ground-based weather radar is… (RDDC: 1)
- a. reflection of pulses with defined frequency, length and power by clouds.
- b. creating images in the infra-red spectrum to show vertical up- and downdrafts.
- c. creating images in the infra-red spectrum to show areas of high precipitation.
- d. reflection of pulses with defined frequency, length and power by precipitation particles.
115. How is an air mass described when moving to Central Europe via the Russian continent during winter? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Continental tropical air
- b. Continental polar air
- c. Maritime tropical air
- d. Maritime polar air
116. What visual flight conditions can be expected within the warm sector of a polar front low during summer time? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Moderate visibility, heavy showers and thunderstorms
- b. Good visibility, some isolated high clouds
- c. Moderate to good visibility, scattered clouds
- d. Visibility less than 1000 m, cloud-covered ground
117. An inversion layer close to the ground can be caused by… (RDDC: 1)
- a. ground cooling during the night.
- b. intensifying and gusting winds.
- c. large-scale lifting of air.
- d. thickening of clouds in medium layers.
118. What pressure pattern may result from cold-air inflow in high tropospheric layers? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Alternating pressure
- b. Formation of a high in the upper troposphere
- c. Formation of a large ground low
- d. Formation of a low in the upper troposphere
119. What type of fog emerges if humid and almost saturated air is forced to rise upslope of hills or shallow mountains by the prevailing wind? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Advection fog
- b. Orographic fog
- c. Radiation fog
- d. Steaming fog
120. What clouds and weather may result from a humid and instable air mass that is pushed against a chain of mountains by the predominant wind and forced to rise? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Thin Altostratus and Cirrostratus clouds with light and steady precipitation.
- b. Smooth, unstructured Ns cloud with light drizzle or snow (during winter).
- c. Overcast low stratus (high fog) with no precipitation.
- d. Embedded CB with thunderstorms and showers of hail and/or rain.
121. How do we refer to air masses flowing against each other, and what weather development will result from it? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Convergence, ascending air and cloud formation
- b. Convergence, descending air and cloud dissipation
- c. Subsidence, ascending air and cloud formation
- d. Subsidence, descending air and cloud dissipation
122. What is the recommended way to deal with isolated thunderstorms on a cross-country flight? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Direct crossing below the cloud base in front of the squall line
- b. Direct crossing below the cloud base through the rainfall area
- c. Watch out and circumnavigate them at a safe distance
- d. Hold at a safe distance and wait for your flight route coming clear
123. Which answer contains every state of water found in the atmosphere? (RDDC: 1)
- a. Liquid, solid, and gaseous
- b. Liquid
- c. Gaseous and liquid
- d. Liquid and solid
124. What phenomenon is caused by cold air downdrafts with precipitation from a fully developed thunderstorm cloud? (RDDC: 1)
- Freezing Rain
- Electrical discharge
- Gust front
- Anvil-head top of Cb cloud
125. An inversion is a layer… (RDDC: 1)
- with increasing temperature with increasing height.
- with decreasing temperature with increasing height.
- with increasing pressure with increasing height.
- with constant temperature with increasing height.
126. The altimeter can be checked on the ground by setting… (RDDC: 1)
- QFE and comparing the indication with the airfield elevation.
- QNH and comparing the indication with the airfield elevation.
- QFF and comparing the indication with the airfield elevation.
- QNE and checking that the indication shows zero on the ground.
127. What is the usual direction of movement of a polar front low? (RDDC: 1)
- Parallel to the the warm-sector isobars
- To the northeast during winter, to the southeast during summer
- To the northwest during winter, to the southwest during summer
- Parallel to the warm front line to the south
128. What visual flight conditions can be expected after the passage of a cold front? (RDDC: 1)
- Good visibility, formation of cumulus clouds with showers of rain or snow
- Poor visibility, formation of overcast or ground-covering stratus clouds, snow
- Medium visibility with lowering cloud bases, onset of prolonged precipitation
- Scattered cloud layers, visibility more than 5 km, formation of shallow cumulus clouds
129. SIGMET warnings are issued for… (RDDC: 1)
- specific routings.
- airports.
- countries.
- FIRs / UIRs.
130. What situation may result in the occurrence of severe wind shear? (RDDC: 1)
- Cross-country flying below Cu clouds with about 4 octas coverage
- During final approach, 30 min after a heavy shower has passed the airfield
- When a shower is visible close to the airfield
- Flying ahead of a warm front with visible Ci clouds
131. Which stage of a thunderstorm is dominated by updrafts? (RDDC: 1)
- Dissipating stage
- Upwind stage
- Cumulus stage
- Mature stage
- Operational information such as runway in use and transition level
- Information about current weather, for example types of precipitation
- Information about mean wind speeds, maximum speeds in gusts if applicable
- Approach information, such as ground visibility and cloud base
133. What weather conditions can be expected in high pressure areas during winter? (RDDC: 1)
- Calm winds and widespread areas with high fog
- Calm weather and cloud dissipation, few high Cu
- Squall lines and thunderstorms
- Changing weather with passing of frontal lines
134. The barometric altimeter indicates height above… (RDDC: 1)
- standard pressure 1013.25 hPa.
- mean sea level.
- a selected reference pressure level.
- ground.
135. What is the mean height of the tropopause according to ISA (ICAO Standard Atmosphere)? (RDDC: 1)
- 18,000 ft
- 11,000 m
- 36,000 m
- 11,000 ft
136. The technique used to assemble smaller, local weather radar images to create images covering larger areas is referred to as: (RDDC: 1)
- “Composite”
- “Grid”
- “Combination”
- “Scan”
137. Above the friction layer, with a prevailing pressure gradient, the wind direction is… (RDDC: 1)
- at an angle of 30° to the isobars towards low pressure.
- perpendicular to the isobars.
- perpendicular to the isohypses.
- parallel to the isobars.
138. Mountain side updrafts can be intensified by … (RDDC: 1)
- Solar irradiation on the windward side
- Solar irradiation on the lee side
- thermal radiation of the windward side during the night
- warming of upper atmospheric layers
139. What pressure pattern can be observed when a cold front is passing? (RDDC: 1)
- Continually decreasing pressure
- Shortly decreasing, thereafter increasing pressure
- Continually increasing pressure
- Constant pressure pattern
- Conditionally unstable atmosphere, low temperature and low humidity
- Absolutely stable atmosphere, high temperature and low humidity
- Conditionally unstable atmosphere, high temperature and high humidity
- Absolutely stable atmosphere, high temperature and high humidity
141. How does the stability of a polar cold air mass change as it moves southerly to Central Europe during spring or summer? (RDDC: 1)
- It destablises due to warming of air in the lower troposphere
- It destabilises due to warming of air in the upper troposphere
- It stablises due to warming of air in the lower troposphere
- It stabilises due to increasing relative humidity
- altitude and vertical speed of the reflecting particles.
- base and top level of the reflecting clouds.
- temperature of the layer from where the echos originate.
- size and nature of the reflecting particles.
143. The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of… (RDDC: 1)
- 2° / 1000 ft.
- 1.0° C / 100 m.
- 0.6° C / 100 m.
- 0.65° C / 100 m.
144. The cloud types shown by HRV (High Resolution Visual) satellite images as “semi-transparent streaks” can be interpreted as: (RDDC: 1)
- Cumulus (Cu)
- Nimbostratus (Ns)
- Cumulonimbus (Cb)
- Cirrus (Ci)
- Cirrus (Ci)
- Cumulus (Cu)
- Stratus (St)
- Cumulonimbus (Cb)
- Cold, moist air mixes with warm, moist air
- Evaporation from warm, moist ground area into very cold air
- Warm, moist air is moved across a hill or a mountain range
- Prolonged radiation during nights clear of clouds
147. The HRV (High Resolution Visual) channel of satellite images shows… (RDDC: 1)
- top level of clouds by temperature measurement.
- location and intensity of precipitation areas.
- forecast development of pressure patterns.
- cloud areas, especially convective structures (Cb).
- Prolonged radiation during nights clear of clouds
- Warm, moist air is moved across a hill or a mountain range
- Cold, moist air mixes with warm, moist air
- Evaporation from warm, moist ground area into very cold air
149. The HRV (High Resolution Visual) channel of satellite images shows… (repeat wording) (RDDC: 1)
- top level of clouds by temperature measurement.
- forecast development of pressure patterns.
- cloud areas, especially convective structures (Cb).
- location and intensity of precipitation areas.
150. What weather conditions in Central Europe are typically found in high pressure areas during summer? (RDDC: 1)
- Small isobar spacing with calm winds, formation of local wind systems
- Small isobar spacing with strong prevailing northerly winds
- Large isobar spacing with calm winds, formation of local wind systems
- Large isobar spacing with strong prevailing westerly winds